🔢 Combinatorics
Probability on a finite, equally likely space is just counting: $P(A)=\frac{|A|}{|\Omega|}$. This page builds the counting toolkit from two questions, does order matter? and can I reuse items?, then adds three power tools: stars and bars, inclusion–exclusion, and lattice paths.
Permutations & combinations
Permutations: order matters
Arrange $k$ of $n$ distinct items in a row. There are $n$ choices for the first slot, $n-1$ for the second, …, and $n-k+1$ for the $k$-th:
$$P(n,k)=n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)=\frac{n!}{(n-k)!}$$With $k=n$ this is $n!$, the number of orderings of all $n$ items.
Combinations: order doesn't matter
Choose a set of $k$ items from $n$ (a committee, a poker hand):
$$\binom nk=\frac{n!}{k!\,(n-k)!}=\frac{P(n,k)}{k!}$$Every set of $k$ items can be lined up in $k!$ orders. Counting ordered arrangements counts each set exactly $k!$ times, so divide by $k!$ to collapse the orderings into one. For example, $\{A,B,C\}$ appears as ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA, which is $3!=6$ times.
Handy identities (and why they're true)
- $\binom nk=\binom n{n-k}$: choosing who's in is the same as choosing who's out.
- $\binom nk=\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\binom{n-1}{k}$ (Pascal): either item $n$ is chosen or it isn't.
- $\sum_k\binom nk=2^n$: each item is in or out.
- $\sum_k\binom mk\binom{n}{r-k}=\binom{m+n}{r}$ (Vandermonde): choose $r$ people from $m$ men and $n$ women by splitting on the number of men.
The four ways to pick $k$ from $n$
Almost every counting question is one cell of this table. Decide (1) whether the order of your picks matters and (2) whether an item can be picked more than once.
| without replacement | with replacement | |
|---|---|---|
| order matters | $P(n,k)=\dfrac{n!}{(n-k)!}$ podium finishes, passwords with distinct characters | $n^k$ PIN codes, sequences of die rolls |
| order doesn't matter | $\dbinom nk$ committees, poker hands | $\dbinom{n+k-1}{k}$ buying $k$ donuts from $n$ flavors (stars & bars) |
"With replacement, order doesn't matter" is not $n^k/k!$. Dividing by $k!$ assumes every unordered outcome came from exactly $k!$ sequences. But $\{A,A\}$ comes from only one sequence (AA), while $\{A,B\}$ comes from two (AB, BA). For $n=k=2$, $n^k/k!=2$, but the true count is $\binom{3}{2}=3$: $\{A,A\},\{A,B\},\{B,B\}$. Use stars and bars.
- $\binom{10}{4}=210$
- $10^4=10{,}000$
- $10\cdot9\cdot8\cdot7=5{,}040$
- $\binom{13}{4}=715$
Arrangements with repeated items (multinomial)
How many ways are there to arrange $n$ objects when there are $n_1$ identical objects of type 1, $n_2$ of type 2, …, $n_m$ of type $m$?
$$\binom{n}{n_1,\dots,n_m}=\frac{n!}{n_1!\,n_2!\cdots n_m!}$$Pretend all objects are distinct and permute them: $n!$ ways. Swapping identical copies doesn't change the visible arrangement, so each visible arrangement was counted $n_1!\,n_2!\cdots n_m!$ times. Divide those rearrangements out.
Second view: choose positions type by type
Choose positions for type 1, then for type 2 among the rest, and so on:
$$\binom{n}{n_1}\binom{n-n_1}{n_2}\cdots\binom{n_m}{n_m}=\frac{n!}{n_1!(n-n_1)!}\cdot\frac{(n-n_1)!}{n_2!(n-n_1-n_2)!}\cdots=\frac{n!}{n_1!\cdots n_m!}.$$With two types this is just $\binom n{n_1}$. For example, arranging $k$ H's and $n-k$ T's gives $\binom nk$ sequences, which is where the binomial PMF comes from.
Stars and bars
Question: how many ways can you write $n$ as an ordered sum of $k$ non-negative integers, $x_1+x_2+\dots+x_k=n$ with each $x_i\ge0$?
Line up $n$ stars and drop $k-1$ bars among them. The bars cut the stars into $k$ groups, and the group sizes are $x_1,\dots,x_k$. For example, with $n=5$ and $k=3$:
$$\star\star\,|\,\,|\,\star\star\star \;\longleftrightarrow\; (2,0,3) \qquad\qquad |\,\star\star\star\star\,|\,\star \;\longleftrightarrow\; (0,4,1)$$Every arrangement of $n$ stars and $k-1$ bars gives exactly one solution and vice versa. So count arrangements: there are $n+k-1$ symbols, and we choose which $k-1$ of them are bars:
Combination with replacement = stars and bars
Choosing $k$ items from $n$ types with replacement, order irrelevant is the same problem. Let $x_i$ be how many of type $i$ you take, so $x_1+\dots+x_n=k$. That gives $k$ stars and $n-1$ bars:
$$\binom{n+k-1}{k}$$Example: 3 donuts from 4 flavors gives $\binom{6}{3}=20$ boxes. Note the roles swap: in "sum of $k$ integers to $n$", $n$ is the number of stars, while in "choose $k$ from $n$ types", $k$ is.
Positive parts. If every $x_i\ge1$, give each group one star up front and distribute the remaining $n-k$ freely: $\binom{n-1}{k-1}$. (Equivalently, place $k-1$ bars into the $n-1$ gaps between stars, at most one per gap.) More generally, lower bounds $x_i\ge a_i$ are handled by subtracting the $a_i$ first. Upper bounds $x_i\le b_i$ need inclusion–exclusion.
- $\binom{10}{3}=120$
- $\binom{12}{2}=66$
- $\binom{9}{2}=36$
- $3^{10}$
Inclusion–exclusion
To count a union, add the pieces. But elements in two sets got counted twice, so subtract the pairwise overlaps. Now elements in all three sets were added 3 times and subtracted 3 times, so add the triple overlap back. Keep alternating until every element is counted exactly once.
The same formula holds for counts:
$$|A\cup B\cup C|=|A|+|B|+|C|-|A\cap B|-|A\cap C|-|B\cap C|+|A\cap B\cap C|$$Why the general formula counts each element exactly once
General form: $\big|\bigcup_{i=1}^n A_i\big|=\sum_{\emptyset\neq S\subseteq[n]}(-1)^{|S|+1}\big|\bigcap_{i\in S}A_i\big|$.
Take an element that lies in exactly $r\ge1$ of the sets. It appears in $\binom rj$ of the $j$-fold intersections, so its total count is
$$\binom r1-\binom r2+\binom r3-\dots=1-(1-1)^r=1.$$Elements in none of the sets are never counted. ∎
Worked example. How many integers in $1..100$ are divisible by 2, 3, or 5? $|A_2|=50,\ |A_3|=33,\ |A_5|=20$; $|A_6|=16,\ |A_{10}|=10,\ |A_{15}|=6$; $|A_{30}|=3$. So $50+33+20-16-10-6+3=74$. The trick: an intersection of "divisible by" sets is "divisible by the lcm".
The two common slips are forgetting the final triple term (giving 71 above) and using it for disjoint events, where it is overkill: just add. Also, if the question asks for "none of the properties", use the complement: $|\overline{A\cup B\cup C}|=|\Omega|-|A\cup B\cup C|$. That is how derangements are counted next.
- $\tfrac16+\tfrac16-\tfrac1{36}=\tfrac{11}{36}$
- $\tfrac16+\tfrac16=\tfrac13$
- $\tfrac1{36}$
- $1-\tfrac16=\tfrac56$
Derangements
A derangement is a permutation with no fixed points: nothing ends up in its original position. In the classic story, $n$ people check their hats, the hats are handed back at random, and nobody gets their own hat. Write $D_n$ for the number of derangements of $n$ items.
So $P(\text{random permutation has no fixed point})=\frac{D_n}{n!}\to\frac1e\approx0.3679$, and it converges very fast. Already at $n=5$ it is $0.3667$. First values: $D_1..D_8 = 0, 1, 2, 9, 44, 265, 1854, 14833$, with $D_0=1$.
Proof of the formula via inclusion–exclusion
Let $A_i$ be the set of permutations fixing $i$. Then $|A_{i_1}\cap\dots\cap A_{i_k}|=(n-k)!$, since the $k$ points are pinned and the rest are free. There are $\binom nk$ such intersections, so
$$|A_1\cup\dots\cup A_n|=\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{k+1}\binom nk(n-k)!=\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{k+1}\frac{n!}{k!}.$$ $$D_n=n!-|A_1\cup\dots\cup A_n|=n!\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\;\xrightarrow{\;n\to\infty\;}\;\frac{n!}{e},$$because $\sum_k (-1)^k/k!$ is the Taylor series of $e^{-1}$. The tail after $k=n$ is smaller than $\frac1{(n+1)!}$, so $|D_n-n!/e|<\frac1{n+1}\le\frac12$. That is why rounding works.
Proof of the recurrence $D_n=(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$
Where does item 1 go? It goes to some position $j\neq1$, and there are $n-1$ choices. Now look at item $j$:
- Item $j$ goes to position 1 (a swap). Remove 1 and $j$. The other $n-2$ items must form a derangement: $D_{n-2}$.
- Item $j$ does not go to position 1. Then position 1 acts like a "forbidden spot" for $j$, playing the role of $j$'s own spot. The $n-1$ items other than 1 must avoid their (relabeled) spots: $D_{n-1}$.
Total: $(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$. Check: $D_4=3(2+1)=9$ ✓.
Why $1/e$? Each item is a fixed point with probability $\frac1n$, and these events are only weakly dependent. If they were independent, $P(\text{none})=(1-\frac1n)^n\to e^{-1}$. In fact the number of fixed points is approximately $\Pois(1)$, with mean exactly 1 for every $n$ (see counting in expectation).
Path counting
Question: how many paths go from $(0,0)$ to $(m,n)$ on a grid if each step moves one unit right (R) or one unit up (U)?
- Every path has exactly $m$ R-steps and $n$ U-steps, so $m+n$ steps in total.
- A path is uniquely specified by choosing which of the $m+n$ steps are R's. For example, RRURU ↔ R's at steps $\{1,2,4\}$.
Through a given point $(a,b)$, multiply the ways to get there by the ways to continue:
$$\#\text{paths through }(a,b)=\binom{a+b}{a}\cdot\binom{(m-a)+(n-b)}{m-a}$$- Avoiding a point: total minus through, $\binom{m+n}m-\binom{a+b}a\binom{m-a+n-b}{m-a}$. To avoid several points, use inclusion–exclusion over the forbidden points.
- Random path through a point: divide by the total. For the center of an $n\times n$ grid ($n$ even), $\binom{n}{n/2}^2/\binom{2n}{n}\approx\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi n}}$, which shrinks only slowly.
- Never crossing the diagonal (from $(0,0)$ to $(n,n)$ staying on or below $y=x$) is the Catalan number $\frac1{n+1}\binom{2n}{n}$. This is the reflection trick from random walks.
- $\tfrac14$
- $\tfrac12$
- $\tfrac{36}{70}$
- $\tfrac{6}{70}$